Staff Nurse Exam Multiple Choice Question Test
01. Which of the following is not true of sulfonamides?
(a) They are primarily metabolized by acetylation
(b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
(c) They may exert bactericidal action in the urinary tract
(d) Used alone, they have become therapeutically unreliable for serious infections
(b) They are more likely to produce crystalluria in alkaline urine in which they are less soluble
02. Adverse effects of ciprofloxacin are referable primarily to the following except
(a) Gastrointestinal tract
(b) Kidney
(c) Skin
(d) Nervous system
(b) Kidney
03. A single oral dose of the following drug can cure most cases of uncomplicated gonorrhoea
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Spectinomycin
(d) Doxycycline
(c) Spectinomycin
04. Which fluoroquinolone has markedly enhanced activity against gram positive bacteria and anaerobes?
(a) Pefloxacin
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Sparfloxacin
(d) Norfloxacin
(c) Sparfloxacin
05. A woman has an upper respiratory infection. Six years ago, she experienced an episode of bronchospasm following penicillin V therapy. The cultures now reveal a strain of streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best choice for this patient?
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Cefaclor
(e) Cyclacillin
(b) Erythromycin
06. Important microbiological features of ciprofloxacin include the following except
(a) Long postantibiotic effect
(b) Marked suppression of intestinal anaerobes
(c) MBC values close to MIC values
(d) Slow development of resistance
(d) Slow development of resistance
07. Currently the drug of choice for empirical treatment of typhoid fever is
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Cotrimoxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Ampicillin
(c) Ciprofloxacin
08. In the treatment of typhoid fever, ciprofloxacin has the following advantage(s)
(a) It is effective in nearly all cases
(b) Early abetment of fever and other symptoms
(c) Development of carrier state is less likely
(d) All of the above
(d) All of the above
09. Penicillins interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis by
(a) Inhibiting synthesis of N-acetyl muramic acid pentapeptide
(b) Inhibiting conjugation between N-acetyl muramic acid and N-acetyl glucosamine
(c) Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases which cross link the peptidoglycan residues
(d) Counterfeiting for D-alanine in the bacterial cell wall
(c) Inhibiting transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases
10. All of the following drugs are suitable oral therapy for a lower urinary tract infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa except
(a) Norfloxacin
(b) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Carbenicillin
(e) Methenamine mandelate
(e) Methenamine mandelate
11. Gram negative organisms are largely insensitive to benzyl penicillin because
(a) They produce large quantities of penicillinase
(b) They do not utilize D-alanine whose incorporation in the cell wall is inhibited by benzyl penicillin
(c) Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper into the lipoprotein-peptidoglycan multilayer cell wall
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Benzyl penicillin is not able to penetrate deeper
12. The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration of action is
(a) Benzathine penicillin
(b) Sodium penicillin
(c) Potassium penicillin
(d) Procaine penicillin
(a) Benzathine penicillin
13. If a patient gives history of urticaria, itching and swelling of lips following injection of penicillin G, then
(a) He will develop similar reaction whenever penicillin is injected
(b) He can be given ampicillin safely
(c) He can be given oral phenoxymethyl penicillin safely
(d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated for him
(d) All natural and semisynthetic penicillins are contraindicated
14. The most important reason for highly restricted use of penicillin G injections in present day therapeutics is its
(a) Narrow spectrum of activity
(b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
(c) Short duration of action
(d) Neurotoxicity
(b) Potential to cause hypersensitivity reaction
15. Benzathine penicillin injected once every 4 weeks for 5 years or more is the drug of choice for
(a) Agranulocytosis patients
(b) Prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis in patients with valvular defects
(c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
(d) Treatment of anthrax
(c) Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever
16. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic penicillin?
(a) Procaine penicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Cloxacillin
(d) Carbenicillin
(a) Procaine penicillin
17. Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s)
(a) Staphylococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Gonococci
(d) All of the above
(a) Staphylococci
18. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is
(a) Nausea and vomiting
(b) Loose motions
(c) Constipation
(d) Urticaria
(b) Loose motions
19. Amoxicillin is inferior to ampicillin for the treatment of the following infection
(a) Typhoid
(b) Shigella enteritis
(c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(d) Gonorrhoea
(b) Shigella enteritis
20. Piperacillin differs from carbenicillin in the following respect(s)
(a) It is more active against pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) It is active against Klebsiella also
(c) It is acid resistant
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
21. Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because
(a) It kills bacteria that are not killed by amoxicillin
(b) It reduces renal clearance of amoxicillin
(c) It counteracts the adverse effects of amoxicillin
(d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
(d) It inhibits beta lactamases that destroy amoxicillin
22. Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except
(a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
(b) Penicillinase producing Staph. aureus
(c) Penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae
(d) β-lactamase producing E. coli
(a) Methicillin resistant Staph. aureus
23. A woman’s neglected hangnail has developed into a mild staphylococcal cellulitis. Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral therapy?
(a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h
(b) Vancomycin 250 mg q6h
(c) Methicillin 500 mg q6h
(d) Cefazolin 1 g q8h
(e) Penicillin V 500 mg q6h
(a) Dicloxacillin 125 mg q6h
24. Cefotaxime has the following properties except
(a) It is highly active against aerobic gram negative bacteria
(b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(c) It produces an active metabolite
(d) It has achieved high cure rates in serious hospital acquired infections
(b) It is the most active cephalosporin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
25. Select the fourth generation cephalosporin among the following
(a) Cefpirome
(b) Ceftizoxime
(c) Ceftazidime
(d) Cefuroxime
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