Staff Nurse Exam Multiple Choice Question Test – 25 MCQs on Antibiotics (With Answers) PART-2

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1. Which one of the following antibiotics is a potent inducer of hepatic drug‑metabolizing enzymes?

A. Ciprofloxacin

B. Cyclosporine

C. Erythromycin

D. Rifampin ✅

E. Tetracycline

2. Beta‑lactamase production by strains of Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae confers resistance against penicillin G. Which antibiotic is most effective against all these strains?

A. Ampicillin

B. Ceftriaxone ✅

C. Clindamycin

D. Gentamicin

E. Piperacillin

3. A 19‑year‑old woman with recurrent sinusitis develops pseudomembranous colitis. Which oral drug is most effective for C. difficile colitis?

A. Ampicillin

B. Cefazolin

C. Clindamycin

D. Metronidazole ✅

E. Tetracycline

4. Bleomycin, used in testicular carcinoma regimens, is accurate for which statement?

A. Acts mainly in the M phase of the cell cycle

B. Derived from the bark of yew trees

C. Myelosuppression is dose‑limiting

D. Peripheral neuropathy occurs in >50% of patients

E. Pulmonary infiltrates and fibrosis may occur ✅

5. Atypical pneumonia with nonpurulent sputum and no organisms on Gram stain is best treated with:

A. Cefazolin

B. Clindamycin

C. Erythromycin ✅

D. Gentamicin

E. Trovafloxacin

6. Chloramphenicol is particularly effective for:

A. Diphtheria

B. Tuberculosis

C. Emphysema

D. Rickettsial diseases ✅

E. Streptococcus pyogenes infections

7. An advantage of bleomycin over most antineoplastics is:

A. Rapid onset of action

B. Lack of toxicity to all normal cells

C. Relative lack of bone marrow toxicity ✅

D. Very broad spectrum of activity

E. Both A and B

8. The drug of choice for scarlet fever is:

A. Tetracycline

B. Sulfonamides

C. Penicillin ✅

D. Chloramphenicol

E. Novobiocin

9. Betamethasone acetate vs. betamethasone sodium phosphate offers:

A. Fewer allergic reactions

B. Prompter action

C. More sustained action ✅

D. Greater solubility

E. No advantage

10. Cyclosporine is primarily used for:

A. Allergies

B. Angina

C. Prevention of transplant rejection ✅

D. Steroid deficiency

E. Lead poisoning

11. Penicillin‑G’s plasma half‑life is longer in newborns due to:

A. Low plasma protein levels

B. Immature drug‑metabolizing enzymes

C. Low glomerular filtration rate ✅

D. Underdeveloped tubular transport

E. Increased hepatic clearance

12. Opioid antimotility drugs in diarrhea management should:

A. Be used for all diarrhea

B. Only short‑term after excluding invasive pathogens ✅

C. Act as adjuvants with antibiotics

D. Be first‑line for IBS‑diarrhea

E. Treat chronic constipation

13. Spectinomycin is indicated for:

A. Gram‑negative septicemia

B. Tuberculosis

C. Penicillin‑resistant gonococcal infections ✅

D. Syphilis

E. Gram‑negative meningitis

14. Antibiotic with high therapeutic index:

A. Streptomycin

B. Doxycycline

C. Cephalexin ✅

D. Polymyxin B

E. Chloramphenicol

15. Organism notorious for rapid antimicrobial resistance:

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Escherichia coli ✅

E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

16. Prolonged antibiotic use yields resistant strains because antibiotics:

A. Induce mutations

B. Promote conjugation

C. Favor resistant growth

D. All of the above ✅

E. None of the above

17. Key mechanism for concurrent multidrug resistance spread:

A. Mutation

B. Conjugation ✅

C. Transduction

D. Transformation

E. Endocytosis

18. MRSA does not respond to β‑lactams because it:

A. Produces β‑lactamase

B. Produces amidase

C. Alters PBP binding site ✅

D. Is impermeable to β‑lactams

E. All of the above

19. E. coli bacteremia with low‑grade fever should be managed by:

A. Acetaminophen 650 mg Q4h

B. Aspirin 650 mg Q4h

C. Alternate aspirin & acetaminophen

D. Withhold antipyretics & monitor ✅

E. Tepid water baths

20. Superinfections are most common with:

A. Narrow‑spectrum antibiotics

B. Short antibiotic courses

C. Fully absorbed antibiotics

D. Broad‑spectrum combinations ✅

E. Topical antibiotics

21. Antibiotic requiring dose reduction in renal failure:

A. Ampicillin

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Tobramycin ✅

D. Erythromycin

E. Linezolid

22. Avoid in liver disease:

A. Chlortetracycline ✅

B. Cotrimoxazole

C. Cephalexin

D. Ethambutol

E. Azithromycin

23. Breakpoint concentration is the drug level that:

A. Lysates bacteria

B. Differentiates sensitive vs. resistant strains ✅

C. Overcomes resistance

D. Becomes bactericidal

E. Equals MIC

24. Antimicrobial combination most likely to antagonize:

A. Bactericidal + Bactericidal

B. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic (highly sensitive)

C. Bactericidal + Bacteriostatic (marginally sensitive) ✅

D. Bacteriostatic + Bacteriostatic

E. None of the above

25. Sulfonamide for topical eye use (nearly neutral solution):

A. Sulfadiazine

B. Sulfacetamide ✅

C. Sulfamerazine

D. Sulfamethizole

E. Sulfisoxazole

📌 Want More? Continue with Q27–Q52 in our next update!

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