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🩺 Staff Nurse Exam Mock Test – 25 MCQs on Antibiotics (With Answers)
Instructions: Choose the correct answer for each question. The answer key is given below each question.
1. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(a) Requires pyridoxine supplementation
(b) May discolor the tears, saliva, urine or feces orange‑red
(c) Causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(d) May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(e) Should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
✅ Answer: (a)
2. A 36‑year‑old woman recently treated for leukemia is admitted... The most appropriate drug regimen is
(a) Ampicillin plus sulbactam
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin
(d) Imipenem plus cilastatin
(e) Ticarcillin plus clavulanic acid
✅ Answer: (b)
3. Which one of the following statements about cefotetan is accurate?
(a) It is active against MRSA strains
(b) It is the drug of choice in community-acquired pneumonia
(c) It is a fourth-generation cephalosporin
(d) It decreases prothrombin time
(e) Its antibacterial spectrum includes Bacteroides fragilis
✅ Answer: (e)
4. The best approach for a patient with penicillin allergy needing treatment for enterococcal endocarditis is
(a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Cefazolin plus gentamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Vancomycin
✅ Answer: (e)
5. Drug effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa but not for penicillin-allergic patients is
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Aztreonam
(c) Imipenem
(d) Piperacillin
(e) Vancomycin
✅ Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following statements about vancomycin is accurate?
(a) It is bacteriostatic
(b) It binds to PBPs
(c) It is not susceptible to penicillinase
(d) It has the advantage of oral bioavailability
(e) Staphylococcal enterocolitis occurs commonly with its use
✅ Answer: (c)
7. Which one of the following statements about ampicillin is false?
(a) Its activity is enhanced by sulbactam
(b) It causes maculopapular rashes
(c) It is the drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infection
(d) It eradicates most strains of MRSA
(e) Pseudomembranous colitis may occur with its use
✅ Answer: (d)
8. Mechanism of tetracycline antibacterial action involves
(a) Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit
(b) Inhibition of translocase activity
(c) Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosomes
(d) Inhibition of peptidyl transferases
(e) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
✅ Answer: (c)
9. Advantage of clarithromycin over erythromycin is
(a) Eradicates mycoplasmal infections in a single dose
(b) Active against erythromycin-resistant streptococci
(c) More active against Mycobacterium avium complex
(d) Does not inhibit liver enzymes
(e) Active against MRSA
✅ Answer: (c)
10. Resistance of gram-positive organisms to macrolides is primarily due to
(a) Methylation of 50S binding site
(b) Esterase formation
(c) Increased efflux activity
(d) Acetyltransferase production
(e) Decreased membrane permeability
✅ Answer: (a)
11. Dose-dependent anemia and reticulocytopenia side effect is associated with
(a) Azithromycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Clindamycin
(d) Doxycycline
(e) Linezolid
✅ Answer: (b)
12. Most effective treatment after vancomycin resistance in enterococcal endocarditis is
(a) Clarithromycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Linezolid
(d) Minocycline
(e) Ticarcillin
✅ Answer: (c)
13. Factor that does NOT increase risk of gentamicin nephrotoxicity is
(a) Age over 70
(b) Long-term use
(c) Amphotericin B use
(d) Trough levels below 2 mg/ml
(e) Cisplatin use
✅ Answer: (d)
14. Best aminoglycoside to combine with penicillin G for enterococci is
(a) Amikacin
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Netilmicin
(d) Streptomycin
(e) Tobramycin
✅ Answer: (b)
15. Accurate statement about gentamicin action is
(a) Time-dependent killing
(b) Not concentration-dependent
(c) Post-antibiotic effect is minimal
(d) Activity reduced with cell wall inhibitors
(e) Continues action post-exposure
✅ Answer: (e)
16. Drug effective against multidrug-resistant TB including streptomycin resistance
(a) Amikacin
(b) Clarithromycin
(c) Gentamicin
(d) Meropenem
(e) Spectinomycin
✅ Answer: (a)
17. Streptomycin is NOT useful in the treatment of
(a) Bubonic plague
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Lyme disease
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Tularemia
✅ Answer: (c)
18. Best single-dose gonorrhea treatment for penicillin-allergic pregnant woman is
(a) Cefixime
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Spectinomycin
(e) Tetracycline
✅ Answer: (d)
19. Drug covering staphylococci in empiric treatment with aminoglycosides
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Clavulanic acid
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Nafcillin
(e) Tetracycline
✅ Answer: (d)
20. False statement about once-daily aminoglycoside dosing is
(a) Convenient for outpatient therapy
(b) Dosage adjustment not needed in renal issues
(c) Less nursing time needed
(d) Less toxic than multiple dosing
(e) Under-dosing is less likely
✅ Answer: (b)
21. Accurate statement about lipid amphotericin B formulations
(a) Lipid affinity > ergosterol affinity
(b) Cheaper than standard amphotericin
(c) More effective via tissue uptake
(d) Lower nephrotoxicity
(e) Broader antifungal spectrum
✅ Answer: (d)
22. Drug NOT needing supplementation post-hemodialysis is
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Ganciclovir
(d) Tobramycin
(e) Vancomycin
✅ Answer: (a)
23. Term for suppression of bacteria after limited drug exposure
(a) Time-dependent killing
(b) Post-antibiotic effect
(c) Clinical synergy
(d) Concentration-dependent killing
(e) Sequential blockade
✅ Answer: (b)
24. All these drugs may require seizure monitoring in high-risk patients EXCEPT
(a) Penicillin G, imipenem, amphotericin B, metronidazole
(b) Penicillin G, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, vancomycin
(c) Imipenem, tetracycline, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(d) Cycloserine, metronidazole, vancomycin, sulfadiazine
(e) Metronidazole, imipenem, doxycycline, erythromycin
✅ Answer: (a)
25. Antibiotic that is a potent inducer of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Rifampin
(e) Tetracycline
✅ Answer: (d)
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