HP Patwari Exam 2026 की तैयारी कर रहे अभ्यर्थियों के लिए यह Latest Mock Test Paper PDF एक बेहतरीन अभ्यास सामग्री है। यह प्रश्न पत्र HPRCA Patwari syllabus 2026 के अनुसार तैयार किया गया है, जिसमें 120 महत्वपूर्ण MCQ प्रश्न शामिल हैं। यह mock test उम्मीदवारों को वास्तविक परीक्षा पैटर्न का अनुभव देने के लिए बनाया गया है। पेपर को Section-I (10+2 level – HP Board based) और Section-II (HP GK, Reasoning, General Awareness) में विभाजित किया गया है। सभी प्रश्न Hindi और English दोनों भाषाओं में उपलब्ध हैं, साथ में Answer Key PDF भी दी गई है।
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HP Patwari Exam 2026 Latest Mock Test Paper-1 PDF | Free Download with Answer Key
HP Patwari Exam 2026 – Mock Test Details
| Exam Name | HP Patwari Exam 2026 |
| Total Questions | 120 Questions |
| Total Marks | 120 Marks |
| Time Duration | 90 Minutes |
| Marks Per Question | 1 Mark |
| Negative Marking | No (As per HPRCA Rules) |
| Section-I | 85 Questions (10+2 Level – HP Board) |
| Section-II | 35 Questions (HP GK, Reasoning, General Awareness) |
| Language | Hindi & English |
HP Patwari Exam Model Test 2026
Q1. If x = 0.36̅, then the value of x is
(A) 4/11
(B) 36/99
(C) 12/33
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Q2. The least number which should be added to 560 so that the sum is divisible by 9 is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8
Answer: (C) 7
Q3. If the product of two numbers is 2025 and their HCF is 45, then their LCM is
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 2025
(D) 405
Answer: (B) 45
Q4. The remainder when 7103 is divided by 6 is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: (C) 5
Q5. The population of a town increases by 10% annually. What is the net increase in 2 years?
(A) 20%
(B) 21%
(C) 22%
(D) 23%
Answer: (B) 21%
Q6. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The net change is
(A) No change
(B) 4% increase
(C) 4% decrease
(D) 2% decrease
Answer: (C) 4% decrease
Q7. If the price of an article is increased by 25% and then reduced by 20%, the net change is
(A) No change
(B) 5% increase
(C) 5% decrease
(D) 10% increase
Answer: (A) No change
Q8. The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 5 and their sum is 64. The larger number is
(A) 36
(B) 40
(C) 45
(D) 50
Answer: (B) 40
Q9. A sum of money is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio of 2:3:5. If C gets ₹1200 more than A, what is the total amount of money?
(A) ₹4000
(B) ₹5000
(C) ₹6000
(D) ₹10000
Answer: (A) ₹4000
Q10. If a : b = 4 : 5 and b : c = 10 : 9, then a : c is
(A) 8 : 9
(B) 4 : 9
(C) 16 : 25
(D) 5 : 9
Answer: (A) 8 : 9
Q11. A can complete a work in 10 days and B in 15 days. Together they will complete the work in
(A) 5 days
(B) 6 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 8 days
Answer: (B) 6 days
Q12. If A is twice as efficient as B and A completes a work in 20 days, B will complete it in
(A) 30 days
(B) 40 days
(C) 50 days
(D) 60 days
Answer: (B) 40 days
Q13. A and B together can do a work in 12 days. A alone can do it in 20 days. B alone can do it in
(A) 25 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 35 days
(D) 40 days
Answer: (B) 30 days
Q14. A can do a work in 18 days. After 6 days B joins and together they finish in 6 days. B alone can do it in
(A) 12 days
(B) 18 days
(C) 24 days
(D) 36 days
Answer: (B) 18 days
Q15. A train 150 m long passes a pole in 15 seconds. Its speed is
(A) 30 km/h
(B) 36 km/h
(C) 40 km/h
(D) 45 km/h
Answer: (B) 36 km/h
Q16. Two trains of equal length run in opposite directions at 60 km/h and 40 km/h. They cross each other in 9 seconds. Length of each train is
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 200 m
Answer: (B) 125 m
Q17. A person walks at 5 km/h and returns by cycling at 10 km/h. The average speed is
(A) 6.67 km/h
(B) 7.5 km/h
(C) 8 km/h
(D) 9 km/h
Answer: (A) 6.67 km/h
Q18. A boat goes 24 km downstream in 2 hours and upstream in 4 hours. Speed of stream is
(A) 2 km/h
(B) 3 km/h
(C) 4 km/h
(D) 6 km/h
Answer: (B) 3 km/h
Q19. The volume of a sphere of radius 7 cm is
(A) 1372 cm³
(B) 1437 cm³
(C) 1500 cm³
(D) 1600 cm³
Answer: (B) 1437 cm³
Q20. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 880 cm² and height is 10 cm. Radius is
(A) 7 cm
(B) 14 cm
(C) 21 cm
(D) 28 cm
Answer: (B) 14 cm
Q21. The area of a square equals the area of a rectangle (20 cm × 5 cm). Side of square is
(A) 8 cm
(B) 9 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 12 cm
Answer: (C) 10 cm
Q22. The ratio of volumes of two cubes is 27 : 64. Ratio of their edges is
(A) 3 : 4
(B) 9 : 16
(C) 27 : 64
(D) 1 : 2
Answer: (A) 3 : 4
Q23. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² is
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 27
Answer: (B) 23
Q24. The roots of the equation x² − 7x + 10 = 0 are
(A) 2 and 5
(B) 3 and 4
(C) −2 and −5
(D) 1 and 10
Answer: (A) 2 and 5
Q25. If 2x − 3y = 11 and x + y = 9, then x is
(A) 7.2
(B) 5.7
(C) 6.2
(D) 7.6
Answer: (D) 7.6
Q26. Why do electric wires made of copper feel warm when current flows through them?
(A) Due to reflection of heat
(B) Due to resistance offered by copper
(C) Due to magnetic field
(D) Due to radiation loss
Answer: (B) Due to resistance offered by copper
Q27. Pressure cookers cook food faster because
(A) Water boils at a lower temperature
(B) Steam escapes easily
(C) Boiling point of water increases
(D) Heat is not lost
Answer: (C) Boiling point of water increases
Q28. Why are handles of cooking utensils made of wood or plastic?
(A) They are light in weight
(B) They look attractive
(C) They are poor conductors of heat
(D) They are cheap
Answer: (C) They are poor conductors of heat
Q29. Why does milk turn sour when kept outside for a long time?
(A) Oxidation of milk
(B) Growth of bacteria producing lactic acid
(C) Evaporation of water
(D) Freezing of milk
Answer: (B) Growth of bacteria producing lactic acid
Q30. Which chemical is commonly used in antacids to reduce stomach acidity?
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Magnesium hydroxide
(C) Hydrochloric acid
(D) Calcium oxide
Answer: (B) Magnesium hydroxide
Q31. Why do iron tools get rusted faster in coastal areas?
(A) High temperature
(B) Presence of sand
(C) High moisture and salt content
(D) Less oxygen
Answer: (C) High moisture and salt content
Q32. Why do we feel tired after heavy physical exercise?
(A) Lack of oxygen in blood
(B) Formation of lactic acid in muscles
(C) Increase in body temperature
(D) Dehydration only
Answer: (B) Formation of lactic acid in muscles
Q33. Why are green leafy vegetables recommended for good health?
(A) They contain fats
(B) They provide carbohydrates only
(C) They are rich in vitamins and minerals
(D) They contain proteins only
Answer: (C) They are rich in vitamins and minerals
Q34. Which organ helps in maintaining balance of the human body?
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Medulla
(D) Spinal cord
Answer: (B) Cerebellum
Q35. Why is vaccination important in daily life?
(A) It cures diseases instantly
(B) It increases body temperature
(C) It provides immunity against diseases
(D) It removes toxins from blood
Answer: (C) It provides immunity against diseases
Q36. Which latitude passes through the middle of India?
(A) Equator
(B) Tropic of Cancer
(C) Tropic of Capricorn
(D) Arctic Circle
Answer: (B) Tropic of Cancer
Q37. The main cause of monsoon rainfall in India is
(A) Cyclonic depressions
(B) Western disturbances
(C) Seasonal reversal of winds
(D) Ocean currents
Answer: (C) Seasonal reversal of winds
Q38. Which soil is most suitable for cotton cultivation?
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Red soil
(D) Laterite soil
Answer: (B) Black soil
Q39. Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
(A) Ganga
(B) Kosi
(C) Yamuna
(D) Son
Answer: (B) Kosi
Q40. The Green Revolution mainly increased the production of
(A) Pulses
(B) Wheat and rice
(C) Oilseeds
(D) Cotton
Answer: (B) Wheat and rice
Q41. Who was the founder of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) A.O. Hume
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer: (C) A.O. Hume
Q42. The Revolt of 1857 began at
(A) Delhi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Meerut
(D) Lucknow
Answer: (C) Meerut
Q43. Who gave the slogan “Do or Die”?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Q44. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in the year
(A) 1917
(B) 1919
(C) 1920
(D) 1922
Answer: (C) 1920
Q45. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (B) Lord Mountbatten
Q46. India is described as a “Republic” because
(A) It has a written constitution
(B) The head of state is elected
(C) It has federal system
(D) Judiciary is independent
Answer: (B) The head of state is elected
Q47. Which Fundamental Right is known as the heart of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q48. The Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from
(A) USA
(B) Britain
(C) Ireland
(D) France
Answer: (C) Ireland
Q49. Who is known as the “Guardian of the Constitution”?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Parliament
Answer: (C) Supreme Court
Q50. The minimum age to become the President of India is
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 35 years
(D) 40 years
Answer: (C) 35 years
Q51. Which gas is mainly responsible for global warming?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: (C) Carbon dioxide
Q52. The largest delta in the world is formed by
(A) Nile River
(B) Amazon River
(C) Ganga-Brahmaputra River
(D) Yangtze River
Answer: (C) Ganga-Brahmaputra River
Q53. Which movement was started after the Jallianwala Bagh incident?
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Quit India Movement
(D) Swadeshi Movement
Answer: (B) Non-Cooperation Movement
Q54. The power to amend the Constitution of India lies with
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (C) Parliament
Q55. Which type of government exists in India?
(A) Presidential
(B) Parliamentary
(C) Monarchical
(D) Military
Answer: (B) Parliamentary
Q56. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: (C) 8
Q57. Who presides over the joint session of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Answer: (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q58. The Quit India Movement was launched in
(A) 1939
(B) 1940
(C) 1942
(D) 1945
Answer: (C) 1942
Q59. Which soil is formed due to weathering of volcanic rocks?
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Red soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Laterite soil
Answer: (C) Black soil
Q60. The Indian Constitution came into force on
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 November 1949
(C) 26 January 1950
(D) 2 October 1950
Answer: (C) 26 January 1950
Q61. Which MS Word feature is used to correct spelling mistakes automatically?
(A) AutoText
(B) Spell Check
(C) Thesaurus
(D) Track Changes
Answer: (B) Spell Check
Q62. Which shortcut key is used to save a document in MS Word?
(A) Ctrl + P
(B) Ctrl + S
(C) Ctrl + C
(D) Ctrl + V
Answer: (B) Ctrl + S
Q63. Which MS Excel function is used to find the average of a range of cells?
(A) TOTAL()
(B) SUM()
(C) AVG()
(D) AVERAGE()
Answer: (D) AVERAGE()
Q64. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
(A) Monitor
(B) Printer
(C) Keyboard
(D) Speaker
Answer: (C) Keyboard
Q65. The brain of the computer is
(A) RAM
(B) Hard Disk
(C) CPU
(D) Monitor
Answer: (C) CPU
Q66. Which software is used to control the overall operation of a computer?
(A) Application software
(B) Utility software
(C) System software
(D) Word processor
Answer: (C) System software
Q67. Which of the following is a web browser?
(A) Google
(B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo
(D) Gmail
Answer: (B) Chrome
Q68. WWW stands for
(A) World Web Wide
(B) Wide World Web
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Web World Wide
Answer: (C) World Wide Web
Q69. Which device is used to connect a computer to the Internet?
(A) Scanner
(B) Modem
(C) Joystick
(D) Plotter
Answer: (B) Modem
Q70. Which of the following is NOT an operating system?
(A) Windows
(B) Linux
(C) MS Excel
(D) Android
Answer: (C) MS Excel
Q71. Choose the correct sentence:
(A) He do not like coffee.
(B) He does not likes coffee.
(C) He does not like coffee.
(D) He not like coffee.
Answer: (C) He does not like coffee.
Q72. Identify the correct passive voice of the sentence: “She writes a letter.”
(A) A letter was written by her.
(B) A letter is written by her.
(C) A letter has written by her.
(D) A letter is being write by her.
Answer: (B) A letter is written by her.
Q73. Choose the correct indirect speech:
(A) He said that he is tired.
(B) He said that he was tired.
(C) He said that I was tired.
(D) He said he tired.
Answer: (B) He said that he was tired.
Q74. Fill in the blank with the correct article:
“She is ___ honest woman.”
(A) a
(B) an
(C) the
(D) no article
Answer: (B) an
Q75. Choose the correct synonym of the word “Abundant”.
(A) Scarce
(B) Limited
(C) Plentiful
(D) Rare
Answer: (C) Plentiful
Q76. Choose the correct antonym of the word “Permanent”.
(A) Stable
(B) Temporary
(C) Fixed
(D) Lasting
Answer: (B) Temporary
Q77. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word:
“He runs very fast.”
(A) Noun
(B) Adjective
(C) Adverb
(D) Verb
Answer: (C) Adverb
Q78. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition:
“He is good ___ mathematics.”
(A) at
(B) in
(C) on
(D) with
Answer: (A) at
Q79. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:
(A) Alas he is dead!
(B) Alas, he is dead!
(C) Alas he, is dead!
(D) Alas! he is dead.
Answer: (B) Alas, he is dead!
Q80. Read the sentence and answer:
“He worked hard, therefore he succeeded.”
The conjunction used here is
(A) And
(B) But
(C) Therefore
(D) Because
Answer: (C) Therefore
Q81. Economics is best defined as the study of
(A) Wealth only
(B) Human behaviour in relation to scarce resources
(C) Business activities
(D) Money and banking
Answer: (B) Human behaviour in relation to scarce resources
Q82. Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Solar energy
(D) Natural gas
Answer: (C) Solar energy
Q83. Sustainable development mainly aims at
(A) Maximum use of natural resources
(B) Economic growth without environmental concern
(C) Development that meets present needs without harming future needs
(D) Industrialisation only
Answer: (C) Development that meets present needs without harming future needs
Q84. Which environmental problem is directly related to excessive use of fossil fuels?
(A) Soil erosion
(B) Global warming
(C) Water scarcity
(D) Deforestation
Answer: (B) Global warming
Q85. The concept of “Green Economy” mainly focuses on
(A) Increasing industrial production
(B) Reducing government spending
(C) Economic growth with environmental sustainability
(D) Export promotion only
Answer: (C) Economic growth with environmental sustainability
Q86. When did Himachal Pradesh become a full-fledged state?
(A) 1948
(B) 1956
(C) 1966
(D) 1971
Answer: (D) 1971
Q87. The capital of Himachal Pradesh in winter is
(A) Shimla
(B) Dharamshala
(C) Mandi
(D) Solan
Answer: (B) Dharamshala
Q88. Which river is known as the lifeline of Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Ravi
(B) Beas
(C) Sutlej
(D) Chenab
Answer: (B) Beas
Q89. Which among following district of Himachal Pradesh is the largest in area?
(A) Kangra
(B) Chamba
(C) Shimla
(D) Kullu
Answer: (B) Chamba
Q90. Which folk dance of Himachal Pradesh is performed during religious ceremonies?
(A) Nati
(B) Chham
(C) Kayang
(D) Jhoori
Answer: (B) Chham
Q91. How many districts are there in Himachal Pradesh at present?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: (C) 12
Q92. The famous temple of Hidimba Devi is located in
(A) Kullu
(B) Manali
(C) Chamba
(D) Bilaspur
Answer: (B) Manali
Q93. Which crop is Himachal Pradesh widely known for?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Apple
(D) Tea
Answer: (C) Apple
Q94. Panchayati Raj system in Himachal Pradesh has how many tiers?
(A) One-tier
(B) Two-tier
(C) Three-tier
(D) Four-tier
Answer: (C) Three-tier
Q95. Which language is widely spoken in Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Punjabi
(B) Hindi
(C) Urdu
(D) Sanskrit
Answer: (B) Hindi
Q96. ‘राम पुस्तक पढ़ रहा है।’ वाक्य में क्रिया कौन-सी है?
(A) राम
(B) पुस्तक
(C) पढ़ रहा है
(D) है
Answer: (C) पढ़ रहा है
Q97. ‘सुंदर’ शब्द का विलोम क्या है?
(A) अच्छा
(B) बदसूरत
(C) साफ
(D) नया
Answer: (B) बदसूरत
Q98. ‘जल’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची कौन-सा है?
(A) अग्नि
(B) वायु
(C) नीर
(D) पृथ्वी
Answer: (C) नीर
Q99. ‘बालक’ शब्द का बहुवचन क्या होगा?
(A) बालकें
(B) बालकों
(C) बालका
(D) बालकियाँ
Answer: (B) बालकों
Q100. ‘वह बहुत तेज दौड़ता है।’ वाक्य में विशेषण शब्द कौन-सा है?
(A) वह
(B) बहुत
(C) तेज
(D) दौड़ता
Answer: (C) तेज
Q101. Who is the current President of India?
(A) Ram Nath Kovind
(B) Droupadi Murmu
(C) Pratibha Patil
(D) Narendra Modi
Answer: (B) Droupadi Murmu
Q102. Which country hosted the G20 Summit 2023?
(A) USA
(B) China
(C) India
(D) Indonesia
Answer: (C) India
Q103. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is related to
(A) Housing for poor
(B) Financial inclusion
(C) Health insurance
(D) Skill development
Answer: (B) Financial inclusion
Q104. Which international organization releases the World Happiness Report?
(A) World Bank
(B) IMF
(C) United Nations
(D) WHO
Answer: (C) United Nations
Q105. Which Indian scheme provides free food grains to eligible beneficiaries?
(A) PMAY
(B) PMFBY
(C) National Food Security Act
(D) Ayushman Bharat
Answer: (C) National Food Security Act
Q106. Which country recently joined BRICS as a new member?
(A) Japan
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Germany
(D) Canada
Answer: (B) Saudi Arabia
Q107. The Ayushman Bharat scheme mainly focuses on
(A) Education
(B) Employment
(C) Health insurance
(D) Agriculture
Answer: (C) Health insurance
Q108. Which country launched the mission “Artemis” related to space exploration?
(A) China
(B) Russia
(C) USA
(D) Japan
Answer: (C) USA
Q109. Which Indian ministry implements the Swachh Bharat Mission?
(A) Ministry of Health
(B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(C) Ministry of Education
(D) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: (B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Q110. World Environment Day is observed on
(A) 22 April
(B) 5 June
(C) 16 September
(D) 2 October
Answer: (B) 5 June
Q111. Find the next number in the series:
2, 6, 12, 20, ?
(A) 28
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 24
Answer: (B) 30
Q112. Book : Reading :: Food : ?
(A) Cooking
(B) Eating
(C) Buying
(D) Serving
Answer: (B) Eating
Q113. Find the odd one out.
(A) Circle
(B) Square
(C) Triangle
(D) Sphere
Answer: (D) Sphere
Q114. If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, then what is the value of CAT?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 26
Answer: (C) 24
Q115. In a certain code, BOOK is written as CPPL. How is PEN written?
(A) QFO
(B) QFM
(C) QEO
(D) PFN
Answer: (A) QFO
Q116. Ravi walks 10 m towards north, then 5 m east and then 10 m south. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: (A) 5 m
Q117. Find the missing letter in the series:
A, C, F, J, ?
(A) N
(B) O
(C) P
(D) M
Answer: (B) O
Q118. Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
(A) College
(B) School
(C) Office
(D) Home
Answer: (B) School
Q119. Which number does not belong to the group?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 9
Answer: (D) 9
Q.120 If SOUTH is written as TOVUI, then NORTH is written as
(A) OPSTI
(B) OPSTH
(C) OPSUI
(D) OOSUI
Answer: (D) OOSUI
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